Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 00:24
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Enim eius molestiae qui iste impedit qui voluptatem iste.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Elly De La Cruz throws out Javier Baez with mind-boggling 98 mph throw - New York Post
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Have you ever witnessed a remote beach show where hundreds of turtles crawling to the water?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?